Bộ đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 Năm 2021
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Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2024 - 2025 gồm 19 đề thi sách Cánh diều, Chân trời sáng tạo, Kết nối tri thức, i-Learn Smart World, có đáp án, bảng ma trận, file nghe cho các em ôn tập, nắm chắc cấu trúc đề thi để ôn thi hiệu quả hơn.
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TOP 19 đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2024 - 2025
- 1. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2024 - 2025
- 2. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Kết nối tri thức
- 3. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World
- 4. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Chân trời sáng tạo
- 5. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Cánh diều
1. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2024 - 2025
1.1. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
PART A. LISTENING (2 PTS)
I. Janet a student at Palmer School America, is talking about her school. Listen and choose the correct answer.(1pt)
1.Janet's favourite teacher is her ___________ teacher.
A. maths B. science
2. Today Janet ___________ her uniform.
A. is wearing B. isn't wearing
3. Janet studies ___________ for two hours a week.
A. English B. Vietnamese
4. Janet usually does her homework ___________.
A.in the library B.at home
II. Listen to the talk. Fill each blank with a word / number you hear.(1pt)
1. Mi and Lan are studying in class ____________.
2. Lan has short ____________ hair and a small _____________.
3. Lan is active and _____________.
4. Chi’s hair is long and black , and her nose is ____________.
PART B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. (0,5pt)
1. A .hats B .pens C .cats D. books
2. A. mother B. brother C. do D . come
II. Choose the best option to complete the sentence by circling A, B, C or D (1.5 pts)
1. Hoa usually _______ after school.
A. is skipping B. skipping C. skips D. is skipping
2. Listen! They ______ in the classroom.
A. are sing B. are singing C. sing D. sings3. I do ________ homework every afternoon.
A. their B. his C. her D. my
4. After class, Lan _______.
A. listens to music C. listen to the music
B. listen to music D. listens to the music
5. We live _______the country.
A. near B. at C. in D. on
6. The police station is ______ the restaurant.
A. opposite B. near C. next D. in front
III. Give the form of verbs in brackets. (1 pts)
1. We can't go out now. It (rain) ______________________.
2. What time (you/ have) __________________________ breakfast every day?
3. There (be) _______ a lamp, a computer and some books on my desk.
4. My dog (like) ________ my bed very much. It is sleeping on it now.
PART C. READING (3.0 pts)
I. Read the passage then choose the best answer A,B,C or to fill in each gap. (1p)
My grandma is my best friend. She is 68 years old. She (1) _lives____ with our family. She was a Maths teacher (2) _____ a secondary school. She likes (3) _____ up early and watering the flowers in our garden. She usually helps (4) _____ with my homework. In the evening, she tells me interesting (5)_______. She also listens (6) _____ me when I am sad. I love my grandma very much.
1. A. lives B. works C. goes D. live
2. A. for B. on C. at D. in
3. A. going B. staying C. getting D. geting
4. A. I B. me C. my D. mine
5. A. stories B. songs C. films D. movies
6. A. with B. to C. for D. at
II. Read the passage then answer the questions. (2pts)
Mai has two friends. Their names are Binh and Nam. Binh likes English and he can study it well. Nam doesn't like English because it is difficult for him. He likes maths. Nam is a clever boy in class. He always gets good marks in math and physics. Binh and Nam like playing football and they always play it after school. They are good friends.
1. Who are Mai's friends?
=> __________________________________________________________________
2. Why doesn't Nam like English?
=> __________________________________________________________________
3. What subject does he like?
=> ___________________________________________________________________
4. When do Binh and Nam play football?
=> ___________________________________________________________________
5. Are they good friends?
=> ___________________________________________________________________
PART D. WRITING (2.0 pts)
I. Rearrage the words to make sentences. (1 pt)
1. quiet / you / keep / when / teacher / is/ your / talking / ? / Do /
=> ___________________________________________________________________
2. desk / is / the / a / next / There / to / bookshelf / . /
=> ___________________________________________________________________
3. me / you / pass / pen / the / please / ? / Can /
=> ___________________________________________________________________
4. oval face / . / Hoa’s / an / mother / has /
=> ___________________________________________________________________
5.skipping/ rope/ The/ girls/ in/ the/ are/ playground/./
=> ___________________________________________________________________
II. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the sentence before.
1. I don’t have a television in my bedroom.
There _____________________________________________________________
2. Her favorite room in the house is the kitchen.
She likes_____________________________________________________________
3. He has short blonde hair.
His hair _____________________________________________________________
4. Let’s play football.
How about________________________________________________________
5. The garden is in front of my house.
My house _________________________________________________________________
1.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
Part A. Listening (2pts)
I. Janet a student at Palmer School America, is talking about her school. Guess the answer to these questions.(1pt)
1. A. maths 2. B. isn't wearing 3. B.Vietnamese 4. A.in the library
II. Listen to the talk again. Fill each blank with a word / number you hear.(1pt)
1. Mi and Lan are studying in class ______6A______.
2. Lan has short ____black___ hair and a small ___mouth_____.
3. Lan is active and __friendly__.
4. Chi’s hair is long and black , and her nose is __big___.
Part B.VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. (0,5pt)
1. B .pens 2. C. do
II. Choose the best option to complete the sentence by circling A, B, C or D (2 pts)
1. C. skips 2. B. are singing 3. D. my
4. A. listens to music 5. C. in 6. A. opposite
III. Give the form of verbs in brackets. (1 pts)
1. We can't go out now. It ( rain) ___is raining____.
2. What time (you/ have) ___do you have____ breakfast every day?
3. There ( be) ___is__ a lamp, a computer and some books on my desk.
4. My dog (like) __likes____ my bed very much. It is sleeping on it now.
PART C. READING (3.0 pts)
I. Read the passage then choose the best answer A,B,C or to fill in each gap. (1p)
1. A. lives 2. C. at 3. C. getting 4. B. me 5. A. stories 6. AB. to
III. Read the passage then answer the questions. (2pts)
1. They are Binh and Nam./ Binh and Nam.
2. Because it is difficult for him.
3. He likes maths./Maths
4. (They play football) after school.
5. Yes, they are./ Yes.
PART D. WRITING (2.0 pts)
I. Rearrage the words to make sentences. (1 pt)
1. Do you keep quiet when your teacher is talking?
2. There is a dest next to the bookshelf.
3. Can you pass me the pen please?
4. Hoa's mother has an oval face.
5. The girls are skipping rope in the playground.
II. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the sentence before.
1. There is not/ isn’t a television in my bedroom.
2. She likes the kitchen best/ most in the house.
3. His hair is short and blonde.
4. How about playing football?
5. My house is behind the garden.
1.3. Ma trận đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
Cấp độ Tên chủ đề | Nhận biết | Thông hiểu | Vận dụng | Cộng | |||||
Vận dụng thấp | Vận dụng cao | ||||||||
TNKQ | TL | TNKQ | TL | TNKQ | TL | TNKQ | TL | ||
I. Listening | - Choose the answer A,B or C | - Write the answer for the questions | |||||||
Số câu hỏi | 4 | 4 | 8 | ||||||
Số điểm | 1 | 1 | 2 | ||||||
II. Vocab& Grammar | - Pronetics -Prepositios -The time. - Present simple tense. - Present continuous | - present simple tense. - Present continuous | |||||||
Số câu hỏi | 8 | 4 | 12 | ||||||
Số điểm | 2 | 1 | 3 | ||||||
III. Reading | Choose the answer A,B,C to complete the short passage | -Read the passage then answer the questions | |||||||
Số câu hỏi | 5 | 5 | 10 | ||||||
Số điểm | 1 | 2 | 3 | ||||||
IV. Writing | -Arrange the sentences. Complete the sentences | ||||||||
Số câu hỏi | 10 | 10 | |||||||
Số điểm | 2 | 2 | |||||||
Tổng số câu | 8 | 17 | 15 | 40 | |||||
Tổng điểm | 2 | 4 | 4 | 10 |
2. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Kết nối tri thức
2.1. Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
LISTENING (2,5pts)
Listen to Trung and Phương talking about their schools and tick (ü) T (True) or F (False). (1pt)
T | F |
1. Trung’s school is in the city. | |
2. Trung’s school is small. | |
3. Phuong’s school is in the city. | |
4. Phuong’s school isn’t small. | |
5. There are eight thousand students in her school. |
Listen to Peter talking about his house. For each question, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
6.Which house does Peter live?
A. an apartment B. a country houseC. a townhouse
7. How many floors does your Peter’s house have?
A.one floor B. Two floors C. Three floors
8. Where is Peter’s room?
A. on the ground floor B. on the first floorC. on the second floor
9. What are there in his room?
A. a bed, a wardrobe and a desk.B. a desk, a bed and a bookshelf.C. a bed, a bookshelf and a table.
10. Why does he love his room?
A. Because it’s comfortable and cozy.B. Because it’s big and cozy.C. He doesn’t love it.
LANGUAGE FOCUS (3.0pts)
11. Find the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the other.
A. smart B. art C. class D. strange
12. Find the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the other.
A. helpful B. betweenC. shelf D. clever
13. You use your .................. to see.
A. hands B. eyes C. head D. ears
14. They ...........my new friends.
A. is B. are C. am D. do
15. ............... name is Linh
A. HerB. She C. HeD. It
16. We always look very ……………… in our uniforms.
A. shyB. badC. new D. smart
17. Does Lan ride her bike to school every day?
A. Yes, she is.B. Yes, she does. C. No, she isn’t.D. No, she does.
18. What ………….. do you like to study? – Math and English.
A. subjects B. uniforms C. coloursD. sports
19. What does Chau look like? – She ……. tall and she ……. big eyes.
A. is/ has B. is/ haveC. have/ are D. are/ has
20. Where’s your cat ? – It’s ………… the bookshelf and the chair.
A. onB. in C. betweenD. under
21. Minh and Trung sometimes ……….. football on Sunday.
A. plays B. playedC. playing D. play
22. Tony goes to a/an__________ school, he studies and lives there.
A. international B. boardingC. local D. national
READING (2,5 pts)
Read the following passage and choose the option (A, B, C, or D) that best suits the blank.
My name is Duy. I’m eleven years old. This is my (23) _______, Quan. We are classmates. We often go to school together. Quan (24) ________ tall and has glasses. He’s friendly and (25) _______ so he always has lots of new ideas. I like playing sports (26) ______ he doesn’t. He likes drawing. He usually draws in his free time.
Now, we (27) ________ to the bookshop to buy some books.
23. A. father B. friend C. teacher D. grandfather
24. A. is B. are C. does D. do
25. A. kind B. active C. creative D. clever
26. A. so B. and C. but D. at
27. A. are go B. go C. walk D. are walking
Read the text and answer True or False.
Hi! I’m Linda. I’m in grade 6. Today is my first day at secondary school. In the morning, I put on my new uniform and get my new bag.
I go to school with my friend by bus. We’re both nervous and excited. At school, we have lots of subjects and the lessons are really fun. My favorite subjects are art and English.
I really like my school, all my teachers are lovely. I can’t wait to go back tomorrow!
True | False |
28. Linda is a student in grade 6. | |
29. She wears school uniform every morning. | |
30. She walks to school with her friend. | |
31. Linda doesn’t like English. | |
32. She doesn’t want to go to school tomorrow. |
WRITING. (2 pts)
Put the words in the correct order to make correct sentences. (1pt)
33. are/ Minh and his friends/ badminton/ playing/.
………………………………………………………………………
34. is/ The cat/ the table/ on/ not/.
………………………………………………………………………
35. goes fishing/ always/ on Sundays/ His brother/.
…………………………………………………………………………
36. you/ Are/ student/ a/?
…………………………………………………………………………
37. Write a paragraph about your house. Use the question to help you
Write about 40- 50 words (1pt).
a) Where do you live?
b) How many rooms are there in your house? What are they?
c) What are there in your living room/ bed room?
d) Do you love your house? Why?
……………………………………………………………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………………………...
2.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
Listening (2,5 Pts)
1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
F | T | T | T | F | C | B | B | B | A |
Language Focus (3pts)
11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 | 21 | 22 |
D | B | B | B | A | D | B | A | A | C | D | B |
Reading (2,5pts)
23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 | 31 | 32 |
B | A | C | C | D | T | T | F | F | F |
Writing (2pts)
33. Minh and his friends are playing badminton.
34. The cat is not on the table.
35. His brother always goes fishing on Sundays.
36. Are you a student?
37. Write a paragraph about your house.
2.3. Ma trận đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
TT | Kĩ năng | Mức độ nhận thức | Tổng | |||||||||
Nhận biết | Thông hiểu | Vận dụng | Vận dụng cao | |||||||||
Tỉ lệ (%) | Thời gian (phút) | Tỉ lệ (%) | Thời gian (phút) | Tỉ lệ (%) | Thời gian (phút) | Tỉ lệ (%) | Thời gian (phút) | Tỉ lệ (%) | Thời gian (phút) | |||
1 | Listening | 10 | 4 | 10 | 4 | 5 | 2 | 25 | 10 | |||
2 | Language | 20 | 10 | 5 | 3 | 5 | 4 | 30 | 17 | |||
3 | Reading | 10 | 5 | 10 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 25 | 15 | |||
4 | Writing | 5 | 4 | 5 | 4 | 10 | 10 | 20 | 18 | |||
Tổng | 40 | 19 | 30 | 16 | 20 | 15 | 10 | 10 | 100 | 60 | ||
Tỉ lệ (%) | 40 | 30 | 20 | 10 | ||||||||
Tỉ lệ chung | 70 | 30 |
SỐ CÂU CỦA MỖI KỸ NĂNG | |||||
Kĩ năng | Nhận biết | Thông hiểu | Vận dụng | Vận dụng cao | Tổng cộng |
Listening | 4 | 4 | 2 | 10 | |
Language | 8 | 2 | 2 | 12 | |
Reading | 4 | 4 | 2 | 10 | |
Writing | 2 | 2 | 1BL | 05 | |
Tổng cộng | 16 | 12 | 08 | 1 | 37 |
2.4. Bản đặc tả đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
Kĩ năng | Đơn vị kiến thức/kĩ năng | Mức độ kiến thức, kĩ năng cần kiểm tra, đánh giá | Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức | Tổng số CH | ||||||||
Nhận biết | Thông hiểu | Vận dụng | Vận dụng cao | |||||||||
TN | TL | TN | TL | TN | TL | TN | TL | TN | TL | |||
LISTENING | 1. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại trong 1-2 phút với chủ đề:- My schoolHọc sinh trả lời câu hỏi bằng cách xác định T/F. | Nhận biết: Nghe và nhận ra thông tin về chủ đề. | 2 | 2 | ||||||||
Thông hiểu: Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn hội thoại để xác định T/F. | 2 | 2 | ||||||||||
Vận dụng: Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để xác định T/F. | 1 | 1 | ||||||||||
2. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại trong 1-2 phút liên quan đến chủ đề: My Housse. Học sinh trả lời bằng cách chọn câu trả lời đúng nhất.(A, B hay C) | Nhận biết: Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết về chủ đề. | 2 | 2 | |||||||||
Thông hiểu: Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn hội thoại về chủ đề để lựa chọn câu trả lời đúng. | 2 | 2 | ||||||||||
Vận dụng: Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để chọn câu trả lời đúng nhất. | 1 | 1 | ||||||||||
LANGUAGE | Pronunciation: phân biệt /a:/ -/ei/ và /e/-/I/Học sinh trả lời câu hỏi bằng cách chọn phương án đúng nhất | Nhận biết: Nhận biết các âm /a:/ -/ei/ và /e/-/I/ thông qua các từ vựng quen thuộc. | 2 | 2 | ||||||||
Vocabulary: Từ vựng đã học theochủ đề: Từ bài 1 đến bài 3. Học sinh trả lời các câu hỏi bằng cách chọn các phương án đúng nhất | Nhận biết: Từ vựng quan trọng theo chủ đề đã học. | 3 | 3 | |||||||||
Thông hiểu: Hiểu được ý nghĩa của cụm từ liên quan đến chủ đề | 1 | 1 | ||||||||||
Vận dụng: Hiểu và vận dụng được từ vựng đã học trong ngữ cảnh. | 1 | 1 | ||||||||||
Grammar:Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học: - Thì hiện tại đơn.- Thì hiện tại tiếp diễn.Học sinh trả lời câu hỏi bằng cách chọn phương án đúng nhất | Nhận biết: nhận ra được các kiến thức ngữ pháp đã học. | 3 | 3 | |||||||||
Thông hiểu: hiểu và phân biệt các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học. | 1 | 1 | ||||||||||
Vận dụng: vận dụng những điểm ngữ pháp đã học trong ngữ cảnh theo các chủ đề liên quan. | 1 | 1 | ||||||||||
READING | 1. Cloze testHiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 60 từ về chủ điểm “My Friends”.Học sinh trả lời câu hỏi bằng cách chọn phương án đúng nhất để điền vào chỗ trống. | Nhận biết: - Nhận ra được các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản. | 2 | 2 | ||||||||
Thông hiểu: - Phân biệt được các đặc trưng, đặc điểm các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản. | 2 | 2 | ||||||||||
Vận dụng: - Sử dụng kiến thức ngôn ngữ trong tình huống mới. | 1 | 1 | ||||||||||
2. Reading comprehensionHiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 60 từ về các chủ điểm “My school”.Học sinh trả lời câu hỏi bằng cách xác định Đúng- Sai | Nhận biết: - Nhận biết các thông tin chi tiết về chủ đề | 2 | 2 | |||||||||
Thông hiểu: - Hiểu và chọn thông tin chi tiết đúng của nội dung bài đọc | 2 | 2 | ||||||||||
Vận dụng: - Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết để chọn đáp án đúng. | 1 | 1 | ||||||||||
WRITING | 1. Unscramble the sentencesHọc sinh sắp xếp từ hoặc cụm từ thành câu có nghĩa | Nhận biết: | 0 | |||||||||
Thông hiểu: - Hiểu được vị trí của từ/ cụm từ để viết thành câu hoàn chỉnh. | 2 | 2 | ||||||||||
Vận dụng: - Hiểu và dùng đúng cấu trúc để viết thành câu hoàn chỉnh. | 2 | 2 | ||||||||||
2. Write a paragraphViết đoạn văn khoảng 40-50 từ về chủ đề “My house” | Thông hiểu: | 0 | ||||||||||
Vận dụng: | 0 | |||||||||||
Vận dụng cao: - Viết 1 đoạn văn khoảng 40 đến 50 từ về chủ điểm “My House”. | 1 | 1 | ||||||||||
Tổng | 16 | 0 | 10 | 2 | 6 | 2 | 0 | 1 | 32 | 5 |
3. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World
3.1. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
UBND QUẬN _________PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO | ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ INăm học 2024 - 2025MÔN TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút |
I. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)
1. A. laundry B. hometown C. physics D. event
2. A. fantasy B. adventure C. exciting D. apartment
II. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)
3. The plates are dirty. I need to ________.
A. do the shoppingB. do the dishes C. make the dishes D. do the laundry
4. ________ stories are about magic, kings and queens.
A. FantasyB. Mystery C. Comic D. Adventure
5. Why don’t you sign ________ a book club?
A. in B. outC. up forD. for
6. Your desk is very dirty. ________ is clean and tidy.
A. My B. Me C. Desk D. Mine
7. I enjoy doing ________ because I can make pretty things from paper.
A. outdoor activitiesB. arts and craftsC. actingD. in the drama club
8. Can Tho is famous ________ its floating markets and beautiful rivers.
A. onB. forC. in D. with
9. Student A: “Where is your hometown?”
Student B: “________”
A. I love my hometown.B. It’s in the east of Vietnam.C. My hometown is a big city.D. My hometown is very good for growing rice.
10. Student A: “What does the new teacher look like?”
Student B: “________”
A. He’s very friendly.B. He teaches literature.C. He’s tall and has brown hair.D. He likes playing soccer.
11. What does the sign mean?
A. You cannot play soccer in this area.B. People don’t have any balls.C. There isn’t a soccer club.D. People don’t like soccer.
12. What does the sign mean?
A. People don’t have cell phones here.B. Please don’t use your cell phone here.C. Cell phones are not good.D. Please put your cell phone here.
III. Reading comprehension.
Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)
WHAT TO DO IN AMSTERDAM
Amsterdam, the capital city of the Netherlands, is a great place to spend time. It is in the west of the Netherlands. It’s easy to travel to this city because it has a big railway station and an airport – and it isn’t difficult to find a hotel. There’s a lot to see and do here. There are shops for people who enjoy shopping and restaurants with typical Dutch food, like stamppot or poffertjes. Or you can go to one of the museums, such as Van Gogh Museum. The best way to travel around Amsterdam is on a bike. There are 747,000 people here and over 600,000 bikes. After a busy day, a lot of visitors enjoy a cup of coffee at one of Amsterdam’s many koffiehuizen (coffee houses).
* Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point)
True or False |
13. There aren’t any railway stations in Amsterdam. 14. It’s difficult for tourists to find a hotel in Amsterdam. 15. Stamppot and poffertjes is typical food in Amsterdam. 16. Cycling is the best way to travel around Amsterdam. |
* Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (0.5 points)
17. Amsterdam is in the _______ of the Netherlands.
A. northB. southC. eastD. west
18. The word ‘koffiehuizen’ in paragraph 2 means _______.
A. a cup of coffeeB. a place where people drink coffeeC. the name of a boat tour D. the name of a museum
IV. Cloze test
Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)
I live in Tallinn (19) __________ the north-west of Estonia. I’m 15 and I live with my parents and brother in a small apartment. On weekdays, I get up at 7 o’ clock in the morning. I walk to school – it’s very near my home and we don’t have a car. School (20) __________ at 8a.m. and ends at 2p.m. I study math, biology, history, art, music, English and German – and Estonian, of course. My favorite (21) __________ are English and history. After school, I go home (22) __________ lunch. I do my homework in the evening and I go to bed at 11p.m. In my free time, I go to the movies, visit friends and (23) __________ rollerblading. Our summer holiday is in July and August and we go to the Baltic Sea. Everyone (24) __________ swimming.
19. A. on B. in C. inside D. at
20. A. start B. begin C. starts D. has
21. A. clubs B. thing C. subject D. subjects
22. A. on B. for C. during D. with
23. A. go B. play C. have D. make
24. A. like B. don’t like C. loves D. plays
V. Verb forms and verb tenses
Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)
25. My house _________ (not have) a garage.
26. My dad usually _________ (do) the shopping at the weekend.
27. I really like _________ (use) computers.
28. I like _________ (chat) with my friends and my cousins.
VI. Rearrange the groups of words in the correct order to make complete sentences. (0.6 points)
29. is / Mary / red T-shirt / wearing / a / black shorts / and /.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
30. doing / I / activities / basketball / love / like / outdoor /.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
VII. Make questions for the underlined part. (1.2 points)
31. My sister Lucy cleans the kitchen.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
32. John is wearing a shirt and jeans.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
33. The city is famous for beautiful houses and museums.
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
VIII. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (1.2 points)
34. There are three bedrooms in my house.
→ My house ……………………………………………………..…………………………………
35. I like literature and geography.
→ Literature and geography ….……………………………………..……………………………...
36. Mrs. Smith has a daughter, Anna.
→ Mrs. Smith is ………………………..……………………………………..………………………
EXTRA QUESTIONS
Pronunciation:
Find the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation. (0.25 points)
1. A. kitchen B. living C. idea D. dinner
Cloze test:
Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)
My name’s James and I live in a small town in the east of Australia. There are four people in my family – my parents, my sister and me. There’s a garden in front of our house and behind the house, (19) __________ a garage for my father’s car and our bikes. On weekends, my sister and I are always (20) __________ on our bikes. Upstairs there’s my bedroom, my sister’s bedroom and a bathroom. Downstairs there’s my (21) __________ bedroom, a living room and a kitchen. Soccer is my favorite sport. My sister Susan is very good (22) __________ science. Her favorite subject is physics. She’s quiet (23) __________ she isn’t shy. She can be very funny. She’s also crazy about music and she’s in a singing club. I’m in a photography club. I love (24) __________ photos of my beautiful town.
19. A. is B. there’s C. it’s D. it
20. A. outdoor B. indoor C. go D. outside
21. A. parents B. parents’ C. parents’s D. parents a
22. A. at B. for C. in D. with
23. A. and B. because C. but D. also
24. A. make B. doing C. having D. taking
Verb forms and verb tenses:
Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (0.25 point)
1. My father sometimes _________ (teach) me to play chess.
Jumbled words:
Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.3 points)
1. My/ short/ has/ a/ hair/ big/ English/ brown/ nose/ and/ teacher/./
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
Make questions:
Make questions for the underlined part. (0.4 point)
1. My brother cleans the living room and takes out the garbage .
……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………
Listening:
Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements are True or False. (1 point)
1. The girl wears a uniform to school.
2. She plays basketball twice a week.
3. Her favorite subject is French.
4. Her school begins at 7 o’ clock.
3.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
I. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)
1. D
2. A
II. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. D
12. B
III. Reading comprehension.
True or False | |
13. There aren’t any railway stations in Amsterdam. 14. It’s difficult for tourists to find a hotel in Amsterdam. 15. Stamppot and poffertjes is typical food in Amsterdam. 16. Cycling is the best way to travel around Amsterdam. | False False False False |
17. D
18. B
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. B
23. A
24. C
V. Verb forms and verb tenses
25. My house doesn’t have/ does not have (not have) a garage.
26. My dad usually does (do) the shopping at the weekend.
27. I really like using (use) computers.
28. I like chatting (chat) to my friends and my cousins.
VI. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.6 points)
29. is/ Mary/ red T-shirt/ wearing/ a/ black shorts/ and/./
Mary is wearing a red T-shirt and black shorts. / Mary is wearing black shorts and a red T-shirt.
30. doing/ I / activities/ basketball/ love/ like/ outdoor/./
I love doing outdoor activities like basketball.
VII. Make questions for the underlined part. (1.2 points)
31. My sister Lucy cleans the kitchen.
Who cleans the kitchen?
32. John is wearing a shirt and jeans.
What is John wearing?
33. The city is famous for beautiful houses and museums.
What is the city famous for?
VIII. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (1.2 points)
34. There are three bedrooms in my house.
→ My house has three bedrooms.
35. I like literature and geography.
→ Literature and geography are my favorite subjects.
36. Mrs. Smith has a daughter, Anna.
→ Mrs. Smith is Anna’s mother.
EXTRA QUESTIONS
Pronunciation:
1. C; 2. B; 3. D; 4. B; 5. A; 6. C; 7. D
8. My father sometimes teaches (teach) me to play chess.
9. My/ short/ has/ a/ hair/ big/ English/ brown/ nose/ and/ teacher/./
=> My English teacher has short brown hair and a big nose.
10. My brother cleans the living room and takes out the garbage.
What housework does your brother do?
Listening:
1. The girl wears a uniform to school. True
2. She plays basketball twice a week. False
3. Her favorite subject is French. True
4. Her school begins at 7 o’ clock. False
Tape scripts:
Interviewer: Good morning. I’d like to ask you some questions about your school. Is it okay?
Student: Sure, no problem.
Interview: What’s your school like? How many students are there?
Student: It’s quite a big school. There are about eight hundred students.
Interviewer: Do you have to wear a uniform?
Student: Yes, we do. We have to wear black skirts and white blouses.
Interviewer: What about sports? Is there a gym?
Student: Yes, there is. We sometimes play basketball there. But my favorite sport is swimming. There isn’t a swimming pool at the school, but there’s a sports center near the school. We go there twice a week to use the pool.
Interviewer: And what’s your favorite subject?
Student: French is my favorite subject.
Interviewer: What time does the school start?
Student: School starts at 8 o’ clock. I get up at 7. My mother makes me breakfast, then I walk to school. It’s near my house.
3.3. Ma trận đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
MA TRẬN ĐỀ KT GIỮA HỌC KỲ I – TIẾNG ANH 6 SMART WORLD
CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC | Tổng số câu | ||||||||
Kỹ năng | Dạng bài | NHẬN BIẾT | THÔNG HIỂU | VẬN DỤNG | VẬN DỤNG CAO | ||||
Trắc nghiệm | Tự luận | TN | TL | TN | TL | TN | TL | ||
Pronunciation (0.5pts) | Stress | Q1, 2 | 2 | ||||||
Writing (Use of English) (2pts) | Vocabulary Preposition Grammar | Q5, 8 | Q3, 4 | Q6, 7 | 6 | ||||
Signs | Q11, 12 | 2 | |||||||
Speaking (0.5pts) | Q9, 10 | 2 | |||||||
Reading (3pts) | Reading comprehension | Q17 | Q13, 14 | Q15, 16 | Q18 | 6 | |||
Guided cloze | Q19, 21 | Q20, 24 | Q22 | Q23 | 6 | ||||
Writing (4pts) | Verb form/ verb tense (1pt) | Q25 | Q26 | Q27 | Q28 | 4 | |||
Rearrange the words (0.6pt) | Q29 | Q30 | 2 | ||||||
Make questions (1.2pts) | Q31, 32 | Q33 | 3 | ||||||
Sentence transformation (1.2pts) | Q34, 35 | Q36 | 3 | ||||||
Tổng (10pts) | 7 | 6 | 8 | 3 | 5 | 3 | 2 | 2 | |
13 câu 36% | 11 câu 31% | 8 câu 22% | 4 câu 11% | 36 câu |
Trắc nghiệm: 22 câu (61%) Tự luận: 14 câu (39%)
Sentence transformation: 0.4đ/ câu
Rearrange sentences: 0.3đ/ câu
Others: 0.25đ/ câu
14 EXTRA SENTENCES:
CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC | Tổng số câu | ||||||||
Kỹ năng | Dạng bài | NHẬN BIẾT | THÔNG HIỂU | VẬN DỤNG | VẬN DỤNG CAO | ||||
Trắc nghiệm | Tự luận | TN | TL | TN | TL | TN | TL | ||
Listening | True/ False | Q1, 3 | Q4 | Q2 | 4 | ||||
Pronunciation | Q1 | 1 | |||||||
Reading | Cloze test | Q2,4 | Q5,6,7 | Q3 | 6 | ||||
Writing | Verb form/ verb tense | Q8 | 3 | ||||||
Rearrange the sentences | Q9 | ||||||||
Make question | Q10 |
3.4. File nghe đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6
4. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Chân trời sáng tạo
4.1. Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6
I. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.
1. A. desks B. lamps C. windows D. maps
2. A. books B. tables C. gardens D. pillows
3. A. towns B. cats C. sisters D. beds
4. A. drawers B. bowls C. cousins D. guests
5. A. sinks B. computers C. mothers D. brothers
II. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the sentences
1. I _____________ English lessons on Tuesday and Friday every week.
A. have B. is having C. hasD. had
2. Alex usually ____________ his homework at 8 p.m.
A. finish B. finishingC. finishedD. finishes
3. We _________ to the judo club twice a month.
A. goB. have C. makeD. take
4. – What do you do in your free time? – I always ________ books in my free time.
A. is reading B. to readC. readsD. read
5. We _____ new subjects for this school year.
A. haveB. hasC. havingD. had
III. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to complete the passage below
Johnson __________ (1) a student. He’s 12 years old. He studies __________ (2) Ba Dinh secondary school on Hoang Hoa Tham Street. He usually __________ (3) home for school __________ (4) 6.30 a.m. He lives __________ (5) near the school, _________ (6) he usually walks to school with some of his friends. But today his father ___________ (7) him to school. He loves Literature and English. Today he has Physics, Chemistry and English. __________ (8) school, he often plays volleyball in the school field.
1. A. is B. be C. am D. are
2. A. from B. in C. at D. on
3. A. leave B. left C. is leaving D. leaves
4. A. at B. for C. on D. to
5. A. also B. quite C. much D. well
IV. Choose the best answer
1. The man will go to the match ______.
A. Sometime B. Anywhere C. Even if it rains
2. It’s time to eat ____!
A. Tomorrow B. Now C. Never
3. Turn off the light before you go _____.
A. Out B. Seldom C. Immediately
4. The cake is ______ frozen.
A. Anywhere B. Completely C. Inside
5. Dan _____ early on weekdays.
A. Gets always up B. Always gets up C. Gets up always
V. Reorder the words to make meaningful sentences.
1. That/ is/ classmate/ my/ girl/ new/ ./
______________________________________
2. We/ flowers/ got/ a book/ have/ about/ ./
______________________________________
3. very/ My/ small/ laptop/ new/ is/ ./
______________________________________
4. This/ present/ you/ is/ birthday/ for/ ./
______________________________________
5. David's/ drawer/ is/ the/ in/ pencil case/ ./
______________________________________
4.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6
I.
1. C | 2. A | 3. B | 4. D | 5. A |
II.
1. A | 2. D | 3. A | 4. D | 5. A |
III.
1. A | 2. C | 3. D | 4. A | 5. B |
IV.
1. C | 2. B | 3. A | 4. B | 5. B |
V.
1 - That girl is my new classmate.
2 - We have got a book about flowers.
3 - My new laptop is very small.
4 - This birthday present is for you.
5 - David's pencil case is in the drawer.
5. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Cánh diều
5.1. Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest
1. A. student B. sugar C. stainless D. slang
2. A. summer B. singer C. study D. tables
3. A. sure B. stupid C. spring D. snail
4. A. ocean B. ceiling C. city D. circle
5. A. ache B. school C. machine D. chemical
II. Give the correct form of words in the blanket
1. Cats are ………… (intelligent) than rabbits.
2. Lana is…………… (old) than John.
3. China is far ………… (large) than the UK.
4. My garden is a lot ………………. (colourful) than this park.
5. Helen is …………… (quiet) than her sister.
6. My Geography class is ……………. (boring) than my Math class.
7. My Class is …………. (big) than yours.
8. The weather this autumn is even ……………… (bad) than last autumn
III. Read then answer the questions:
This is my friend. Her name is Linh. She goes to school from Monday to Saturday. Her school is on Nguyen Cao Thang Street and it is big. It has five floors. Linh’s classroom is on the third floor. She is in grade 6 class 6A. There are thirty-two pupils in her class.
Linh starts her classes at 2 o’clock in the afternoon and finishes them at 4:30. On Monday, she has Math, Literature and English. After school, Linh plays badminton, but her friend, Lien doesn’t play it; she plays volleyball. Linh goes home at 5:30.
Questions:
1. Where is Linh’s school?
……………………………………………………………………………
2. How many floors does her school have?
…………………………………………………………………….
3. Which class is she in?
……………………………………………………………………………..
4. What time does she start her classes?
…………………………………………………………………..
5. Does Lien play badminton?
…………………………………………………………………..
IV. Make the questions for underline part
1.- The children swam in the lake.
......................................................
2.- The glass fell of the table.
......................................................
3.- They saw lions and tigers at the zoo.
......................................................
4.- He left the party at 11.o’clock.
......................................................
5.- John went to the beach last Sunday.
......................................................
5.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6
I.
1. B2. D3. A4. A5. C
II.
1- more intelligent
2- older
3- larger
4- more colourful
5- quieter
6- more boring
7- bigger
8- worse
III.
1. It is on Nguyen Cao Thang Street.
2. It has five floors.
3. She is in grade 6 class 6A.
4. She starts her classes at 2 o’clock in the afternoon.
5. No, she doesn’t.
IV.
1 - Who swam in the lake?
2 - What fell of the table?
3 - What did they see at the zoo?
4 - What time did he leave the party?
5 - Where did John go last Sunday?
..........
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