Is F(x)=3x-1 And G(x)=(x+1)/3 Inverses Of Each Other? - Wyzant
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Best Newest Oldest By: Best Newest OldestIf the function f applied to an input x gives a result of y, then applying its inverse function g to y gives the result x, i.e., g(y) = x if and only if f(x) = y
Given f(x) = 3x -1, Let f(x) = y = 3x-1
Given g(x) = (x+1)/3 , so that g(y) = (y+1)/3g(f(x))=g(y)=[(3x-1)+1]/3=x
vise versa,
Let g(x)=(x+1)/3
f(g(x))=3*g(x)-1=3((x+1)/3)-1=x
So f(x) and g(x) are inverse of each other.
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